Which of the following is a distinctive feature of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Hierarchical Social Structure
b) Well-planned cities with drainage systems
c) Vedic religion
d) Iron technology
The Rig Veda primarily deals with:
a) Philosophical speculations
b) Historical accounts
c) Hymns and prayers
d) Scientific theories
Which of the following is NOT a core teaching of Buddhism?
a) Four Noble Truths
b) Eightfold Path
c) Concept of Atman
d) Nirvana
The Mauryan Empire is known for its administrative efficiency under the leadership of:
a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Ashoka
c) Bindusara
d) Samudragupta
The Gupta period is often referred to as the Golden Age of Indian history due to its significant contributions in:
a) Military conquests
b) Political stability
c) Art, literature, and science
d) Trade and commerce
The Pallavas, Chalukyas, and Cholas were powerful dynasties of:
a) North India
b) South India
c) Eastern India
d) Western India
The Chinese traveler who visited India during the Gupta period was:
a) Fa Xian
b) Xuanzang
c) Ibn Battuta
d) Marco Polo
The Rajput period is characterized by:
a) Strong centralized authority
b) Feudal system and regional kingdoms
c) Democratic governance
d) Communist ideology
The Ajanta and Ellora Caves are famous examples of:
a) Gupta architecture
b) Chalukyan architecture
c) Chola architecture
d) Rajput architecture
Harshavardhana, the ruler of the Vardhana dynasty, was known for his:
a) Military conquests
b) Religious tolerance
c) Economic reforms
d) Administrative efficiency
The Delhi Sultanate was established by:
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Iltutmish
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
The Bhakti and Sufi movements were popular during the Delhi Sultanate because they:
a) Emphasized caste distinctions
b) Promoted religious intolerance
c) Offered a path to spiritual liberation for all
d) Supported the Sultanate's authority
The Mughal Empire reached its zenith under the rule of:
a) Babur
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan
The Taj Mahal, a magnificent mausoleum, was built by:
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shah Jahan
d) Aurangzeb
The Maratha Empire, under the leadership of Shivaji, challenged the Mughal authority in:
a) North India
b) South India
c) Western India
d) Eastern India
The Bahamani Kingdom and the Vijayanagara Empire were prominent powers in:
a) North India
b) South India
c) Eastern India
d) Western India
The Hampi ruins are a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in:
a) Karnataka
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
The Vijayanagara Empire is known for its:
a) Weak military
b) Religious intolerance
c) Architectural and artistic achievements
d) Economic decline
The Qutub Shahi dynasty ruled over:
a) Delhi
b) Golconda
c) Bijapur
d) Ahmadnagar
The Charminar is a famous monument located in:
a) Hyderabad
b) Delhi
c) Agra
d) Jaipur
The British East India Company initially came to India as a:
a) Political power
b) Military force
c) Trading company
d) Religious mission
The Battle of Plassey marked the beginning of British political dominance in India. Who led the Indian forces in this battle?
a) Siraj-ud-Daulah
b) Mir Jafar
c) Tipu Sultan
d) Hyder Ali
The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was a major uprising against British rule. It is also known as the:
a) Sepoy Mutiny
b) Great Revolt
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement system, which primarily affected:
a) Landowners
b) Peasants
c) Artisans
d) Merchants
The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy implemented by:
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) Lord Wellesley
c) Lord William Bentinck
d) Lord Canning
The Indian National Congress was founded in:
a) 1858
b) 1885
c) 1905
d) 1919
Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy of Satyagraha emphasized:
a) Violence and revolution
b) Non-cooperation and civil disobedience
c) Armed struggle
d) Economic boycott
The Quit India Movement was launched in:
a) 1930
b) 1942
c) 1947
d) 1948
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was a prominent leader of the:
a) Indian National Congress
b) Dalit movement
c) Hindu Mahasabha
d) Muslim League
India gained independence from British rule on:
a) August 15, 1947
b) January 26, 1950
c) March 15, 1948
d) November 14, 1949
The Satavahana dynasty ruled over a vast territory in:
a) North India
b) South India
c) Eastern India
d) Western India
The Ikshvakus succeeded the Satavahanas in ruling parts of:
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
The Vishnukundins were a powerful dynasty that flourished in:
a) Krishna River Valley
b) Godavari River Valley
c) Tungabhadra River Valley
d) Kaveri River Valley
The Mudigonda and Vemulawada Chalukyas were known for their:
a) Military conquests
b) Religious tolerance
c) Architectural and artistic achievements
d) Economic reforms
The Kakatiya dynasty was one of the most powerful dynasties of medieval Telangana. Their capital was:
a) Warangal
b) Rajahmundry
c) Vijayawada
d) Amaravati
The fairs and festivals of Telangana reflect the region's:
a) Religious diversity
b) Cultural heritage
c) Social customs
d) All of the above
Moharram is a religious festival observed by:
a) Hindus
b) Muslims
c) Christians
d) Sikhs
Urs is a Sufi festival associated with:
a) The birth of Prophet Muhammad
b) The death anniversary of Sufi saints
c) The victory of Islam
d) The pilgrimage to Mecca
Jataras are:
a) Religious fairs
b) Cultural festivals
c) Trade fairs
d) All of the above
The composite culture of Telangana has been influenced by:
a) The Mughals
b) The British
c) The Nizams
d) All of the above
The Rachakonda and Devarakonda Velamas were powerful feudatories under the:
a) Kakatiya dynasty
b) Vijayanagara Empire
c) Qutb Shahi dynasty
d) Mughal Empire
The Qutb Shahi dynasty was founded by:
a) Quli Qutb Shah
b) Ibrahim Qutb Shah
c) Abdullah Qutb Shah
d) Muhammad Qutb Shah
The Charminar is a famous monument built by:
a) Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
b) Ibrahim Qutb Shah
c) Abdullah Qutb Shah
d) Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
The Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah I laid the foundation of the Asaf Jahi dynasty in:
a) 16th century
b) 17th century
c) 18th century
d) 19th century
The Salar Jung Museum is one of the largest museums in India, located in:
a) Hyderabad
b) Warangal
c) Adilabad
d) Karimnagar
The Vetti and Bhagela systems were forms of:
a) Land revenue collection
b) Forced labor
c) Caste-based discrimination
d) Religious practices
The Arya Samaj and the Andhra Maha Sabha were social reform movements that aimed to:
a) Promote Hindu orthodoxy
b) Oppose British rule
c) Reform Hindu society
d) Establish a separate Telangana state
The Adi-Hindu movement was a Dalit movement led by:
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Kandukuri Veeresalingam Pantulu
d) Potti Sreeramulu
The Telangana Peasant Armed Struggle was a major rebellion against the Nizam's rule, led by:
a) Komaram Bheem
b) Alluri Sitarama Raju
c) Bhagat Singh
d) Subhash Chandra Bose
The Nizam's rule in Hyderabad ended with:
a) The Indian Independence Act of 1947
b) Police Action by the Indian government
c) A peaceful agreement with the Indian government
d) A popular uprising
The Indian Constitution was adopted on:
a) 15th August 1947
b) 26th November 1949
c) 26th January 1950
d) 2nd October 1947
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India as:
a) A Federal State
b) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
c) A Unitary State
d) A Communist State
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution"?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Rajendra Prasad
How many articles were originally in the Indian Constitution?
a) 395
b) 400
c) 450
d) 350
The phrase "We, the people of India" in the Preamble signifies:
a) Sovereignty of Parliament
b) Popular Sovereignty
c) Federalism
d) Socialism
Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right under the Indian Constitution?
a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Freedom of Religion
c) Right to Property
d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
The Directive Principles of State Policy are:
a) Justiciable
b) Non-justiciable
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Judicial Directives
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 52nd Amendment
d) 86th Amendment
Which Article of the Indian Constitution ensures the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
a) Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 32
d) Article 25
How many Fundamental Duties are listed in the Constitution?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 9
d) 12
3. Distinctive Features of Indian Federalism
61. Indian federalism is described as:
a) Dual Federalism
b) Quasi-Federal
c) Absolute Federalism
d) None of the above
The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is detailed in:
a) Schedule VI
b) Schedule VII
c) Schedule VIII
d) Schedule IX
Residuary powers are vested in:
a) States
b) Union
c) Concurrent List
d) Local Governments
Which of the following lists includes subjects like police, public health, and agriculture?
a) Union List
b) State List
c) Concurrent List
d) Residuary List
Who resolves disputes regarding the distribution of powers between the Union and the States?
a) President
b) Supreme Court
c) Parliament
d) Prime Minister
4. Union and State Government
66. The President of India is elected by:
a) Members of Parliament only
b) Members of State Legislatures only
c) Members of Parliament and State Legislatures
d) People directly
Who is the head of the government at the state level?
a) Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) State Legislature
d) None of the above
Which article mentions the impeachment process of the President of India?
a) Article 61
b) Article 72
c) Article 74
d) Article 76
Who appoints the Governor of a state?
a) Chief Minister
b) President
c) Prime Minister
d) Supreme Court
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Lok Sabha
d) Rajya Sabha
5. Indian Constitution – Amendment Procedures and Amendment Acts
71. The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is mentioned in:
a) Article 368
b) Article 370
c) Article 395
d) Article 266
The 73rd Amendment Act is related to:
a) Panchayati Raj Institutions
b) Urban Local Bodies
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Reservation for Women
The first constitutional amendment was related to:
a) Land Reforms
b) Reservation
c) Right to Property
d) Fundamental Duties
How many types of amendments are there in the Indian Constitution?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
The "Basic Structure Doctrine" was established by which case?
a) Golaknath Case
b) Kesavananda Bharati Case
c) Minerva Mills Case
d) SR Bommai Case
6. Rural and Urban Governance – 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts
76. The 73rd Amendment Act focuses on:
a) Urban local bodies
b) Panchayati Raj Institutions
c) Zila Parishads
d) District Magistrates
Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the powers and responsibilities of Panchayats?
a) 10th Schedule
b) 11th Schedule
c) 12th Schedule
d) 9th Schedule
The 74th Amendment Act pertains to:
a) Rural Governance
b) Urban Local Bodies
c) Tribal Welfare
d) Central Administration
Who is the head of a Municipal Corporation?
a) District Collector
b) Mayor
c) Chief Minister
d) Sarpanch
Which state first adopted the Panchayati Raj system?
a) Rajasthan
b) Maharashtra
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Uttar Pradesh
7. Electoral Mechanism – Election Commission and Reforms
81. The Election Commission of India is a:
a) Statutory body
b) Constitutional body
c) Quasi-judicial body
d) Non-statutory body
Which article provides for the Election Commission of India?
a) Article 320
b) Article 324
c) Article 330
d) Article 350
Anti-defection law was enacted through which amendment?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 52nd Amendment
c) 44th Amendment
d) 86th Amendment
What is NOT a function of the Election Commission?
a) Conducting elections
b) Appointing the President
c) Registering political parties
d) Enforcing the Model Code of Conduct
Which committee recommended electoral reforms in India?
a) Mandal Committee
b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
c) Ashok Mehta Committee
d) Shah Commission
8. Judicial System in India
86. Judicial Review in India is based on:
a) Rule of Law
b) Federal Structure
c) Separation of Powers
d) Parliamentary Supremacy
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in:
a) India
b) USA
c) UK
d) Canada
Which article deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
a) Article 132
b) Article 141
c) Article 143
d) Article 145
Judicial activism in India was popularized through:
a) Judicial Reforms
b) Public Interest Litigation
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Directive Principles
High Courts in India were first established in:
a) 1857
b) 1862
c) 1885
d) 1909
9. Special Constitutional Provisions
91. Reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is mentioned under which Articles?
a) Articles 15 and 16
b) Articles 330 to 342
c) Articles 19 and 21
d) Articles 45 and 46
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes was established under which article?
a) Article 338
b) Article 341
c) Article 343
d) Article 350
Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) quota was introduced through which Amendment?
a) 101st Amendment
b) 102nd Amendment
c) 103rd Amendment
d) 104th Amendment
Which body monitors the implementation of human rights in India?
a) National Commission for Women
b) National Human Rights Commission
c) Central Vigilance Commission
d) National Minorities Commission
The Constitution guarantees representation for women in:
a) Lok Sabha
b) Panchayati Raj Institutions
c) Rajya Sabha
d) Judiciary
10. National Integration – Issues and Challenges
96. Insurgency in the northeastern states is primarily due to:
a) Economic disparity
b) Ethnic conflicts
c) Land reforms
d) Political stability
Which organization is responsible for managing internal security in India?
a) Border Security Force
b) Central Bureau of Investigation
c) Ministry of Home Affairs
d) Reserve Bank of India
Article 262 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
a) Inter-State Water Disputes
b) National Integration
c) Linguistic Minorities
d) Freedom of Religion
What is the key challenge in achieving national integration?
a) Cultural diversity
b) Economic inequality
c) Political instability
d) All of the above
The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) is primarily enforced in:
a) Union Territories
b) Urban Areas
c) Disturbed Areas
d) Coastal Regions
101. The joint family system in India is characterized by:
a) Nuclear families living together
b) Multiple generations living together under one roof
c) Urban households
d) Temporary arrangements
102. The practice of endogamy refers to:
a) Marriage outside one's caste or community
b) Marriage within one's caste or community
c) Prohibition of marriage
d) Inter-caste conflicts
103. Kinship in Indian society is primarily based on:
a) Blood relations
b) Landownership
c) Political alliances
d) Urban settlements
104. Scheduled Tribes in India are identified based on:
a) Geographical isolation
b) Distinct culture and language
c) Economic backwardness
d) All of the above
105. Which ancient text is a significant source for understanding the caste system in India?
a) Rigveda
b) Manusmriti
c) Arthashastra
d) Mahabharata
106. Which Indian state has the highest percentage of tribal population?
a) Chhattisgarh
b) Nagaland
c) Mizoram
d) Arunachal Pradesh
107. What is the term for a practice where women have more than one husband, common in some tribal societies?
a) Polygamy
b) Polyandry
c) Monogamy
d) Patriarchy
108. Ethnicity in Indian society is determined by:
a) Cultural and linguistic traits
b) Economic status
c) Political affiliations
d) Urbanization
109. The Devadasi system in India is associated with:
a) Women dedicated to temples
b) Women in administrative roles
c) Women leading peasant movements
d) Urban labor force
110. The term "Secularism" in Indian society means:
a) Absence of religion
b) Equal treatment of all religions by the state
c) Promotion of a specific religion
d) Prohibition of religious practices
111. The term "casteism" refers to:
a) Discrimination based on caste
b) Promotion of equality among castes
c) Abolition of caste system
d) Inter-caste marriages
112. Communalism in India typically leads to:
a) Economic development
b) Religious harmony
c) Social tensions and riots
d) Technological growth
113. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act was enacted in:
a) 2001
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2015
114. Child labor in India is prohibited under which article of the Constitution?
a) Article 14
b) Article 24
c) Article 19
d) Article 32
115. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act was passed in:
a) 2016
b) 2018
c) 2019
d) 2020
116. Human trafficking involves:
a) Illegal movement of people for exploitation
b) Employment of underprivileged workers
c) Export of goods by illegal means
d) Migration of laborers to urban areas
117. The National Commission for Women was established in:
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 1995
d) 2000
118. Violence against women in India is tackled under which section of the IPC?
a) Section 302
b) Section 498A
c) Section 144
d) Section 377
119. Disability rights in India are governed by the:
a) Mental Health Act
b) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act
c) Child Protection Act
d) Labor Welfare Act
120. Regionalism in India is driven by:
a) Demand for political autonomy
b) Regional disparities
c) Cultural identity
d) All of the above
121. The Tebhaga movement in India was associated with:
a) Peasant rights
b) Women's rights
c) Dalit empowerment
d) Tribal autonomy
122. The Chipko movement is related to:
a) Forest conservation
b) Labor rights
c) Women's safety
d) Political reforms
123. Who was a prominent leader of the Dalit Movement in India?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Subhash Chandra Bose
124. The Narmada Bachao Andolan is an example of:
a) Environmental movement
b) Peasant uprising
c) Regional autonomy movement
d) Women's rights movement
125. The Self-Respect Movement was founded by:
a) Periyar E.V. Ramasamy
b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c) Sardar Patel
d) Lala Lajpat Rai
126. Which movement demanded statehood for Telangana?
a) Chipko movement
b) Telangana movement
c) Green Revolution
d) Quit India movement
127. The Jharkhand movement was aimed at:
a) Peasant rights
b) Tribal autonomy
c) Women's safety
d) Economic reforms
128. The Green Revolution in India impacted:
a) Environmental conservation
b) Agricultural practices
c) Tribal rights
d) Urban migration
129. The Women's Movement in India became prominent during:
a) British rule
b) Post-independence era
c) Emergency period
d) 1990s
130. Human Rights movements in India advocate for:
a) Political autonomy
b) Fundamental freedoms
c) Economic equality
d) Linguistic identity
Here is the properly aligned version of your questions:
131. The MGNREGA scheme guarantees employment for:
a) 50 days
b) 100 days
c) 150 days
d) 200 days
132. The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) program primarily focuses on:
a) Education of girl children
b) Immunization, nutrition, and preschool education
c) Employment for rural women
d) Housing for underprivileged children
133. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in:
a) 2002
b) 2005
c) 2008
d) 2010
134. The Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP) aims to:
a) Provide health insurance for tribals
b) Allocate funds for tribal development
c) Promote sports among tribals
d) Distribute tribal lands to landless laborers
135. Which scheme focuses on self-help groups for women empowerment?
a) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
b) National Rural Livelihood Mission
c) Skill India Mission
d) Make in India
136. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was introduced to:
a) Increase literacy rates
b) Improve nutritional status of school children
c) Reduce school dropouts
d) Both b and c
137. The "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao" scheme primarily addresses:
a) Women in rural areas
b) Gender imbalance and female education
c) Health insurance for women
d) Political participation of women
138. The National Policy on Education emphasizes:
a) Vocational training
b) Universal access to education
c) Higher education only
d) Reducing private education
139. The PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana) focuses on:
a) Urban development
b) Housing for all
c) Tribal welfare
d) Road connectivity
140. Affirmative action for SCs and STs in India includes:
a) Reservation in education and employment
b) Financial incentives
c) Land reforms
d) All of the above
141. The "Vetti" system in Telangana was a form of:
a) Bonded labor
b) Religious practice
c) Agricultural festival
d) Traditional education system
142. The Jogini system is associated with:
a) Ritual dedication of women to temples
b) Tribal farming practices
c) Traditional weaving industry
d) Education of girl children
143. The fluoride contamination issue in Telangana is prevalent in which district?
a) Adilabad
b) Nalgonda
c) Karimnagar
d) Khammam
144. Migration in Telangana is largely caused by:
a) Lack of educational institutions
b) Agricultural distress and unemployment
c) Industrial growth
d) Regional festivals
145. Telangana artisans face challenges primarily due to:
a) Lack of markets
b) Competition from industrial goods
c) Decline in traditional skills
d) All of the above
146. Child labor in Telangana is predominantly seen in:
a) Agriculture
b) Brick kilns
c) Domestic work
d) All of the above
147. The Devadasi system in Telangana was abolished under:
a) The Hindu Marriage Act
b) The Andhra Pradesh Devadasi (Prohibition of Dedication) Act
c) The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act
d) The Prevention of Atrocities Act
148. Farmer suicides in Telangana are primarily attributed to:
a) Crop failure and indebtedness
b) Poor irrigation facilities
c) Climate change
d) All of the above
149. Which community in Telangana is known for its Pochampally sarees?
a) Tribal community
b) Weaver community
c) Fishing community
d) Pottery community
150. What is the focus of the Telangana State Industrial Project Approval and Self-Certification System (TS-iPASS)?
a) Employment generation
b) Women empowerment
c) Quick approval of industrial projects
d) Tribal welfare
Answers:
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